Common Mistakes to Avoid
Watch out for these exam traps that candidates frequently miss on Retirement Plans questions:
Confusing traditional vs Roth tax treatment
Forgetting RMD age requirements (now 73)
Mixing up contribution limits across plan types
Sample Practice Questions
What is the primary difference between contributions to a Traditional IRA and a Roth IRA?
A is correct. Traditional IRA contributions are typically made with pre-tax dollars (deductible contributions), providing an immediate tax deduction, while Roth IRA contributions are made with after-tax dollars (no deduction now) but offer tax-free qualified distributions later.
B (Higher contribution limits) is incorrect because Traditional and Roth IRAs have the same contribution limits ($7,000 in 2024, or $8,000 if age 50 or older). C (Employment requirement) is incorrect because both account types generally require earned income to make contributions. D (Penalty-free withdrawals) is incorrect because Traditional IRAs generally impose a 10% penalty for early withdrawals before age 59½, while Roth IRAs allow tax-free and penalty-free withdrawal of contributions (but not earnings) at any time.
Understanding Traditional versus Roth tax treatment is the #1 most tested retirement plan concept on the Series 65. This fundamental distinction appears in multiple questions per exam. The key is remembering the timing: Traditional gives you a tax break now (deductible contributions) but you pay taxes later (on distributions). Roth does the opposite: no deduction now, but qualified distributions are completely tax-free. This concept is essential for advising clients on which account type suits their current versus expected future tax brackets.
A 68-year-old client born in 1956 asks when she must begin taking required minimum distributions (RMDs) from her Traditional IRA. The adviser should inform her that RMDs must begin by:
D is correct. Under the SECURE Act 2.0, individuals born between 1951 and 1959 must begin taking RMDs at age 73. The first RMD must be taken by April 1 of the year following the year they turn 73.
A (Age 70½) is incorrect because this was the old rule before the SECURE Act of 2019. B (Age 75) is incorrect because this RMD age applies only to individuals born in 1960 or later, starting in 2033. C (Age 72) is incorrect because this applied to individuals born in 1950 or earlier under the original SECURE Act.
RMD age requirements are heavily tested on the Series 65, especially since the SECURE Acts changed the rules. Many candidates incorrectly remember the old age 70½ rule. The current framework is: age 72 for those born in 1950 or earlier, age 73 for those born 1951-1959, and age 75 for those born 1960 or later. Always check the client's birth year to determine the correct RMD age. This is a common exam scenario where small details matter.
Which of the following retirement plans allows ONLY employer contributions, not employee contributions?
C is correct. A SEP IRA (Simplified Employee Pension) is funded exclusively by employer contributions. Employees cannot make their own contributions to a SEP IRA, making it a straightforward retirement plan for self-employed individuals and small businesses.
A (401(k)) is incorrect because 401(k) plans allow both employee salary deferrals and employer contributions (such as matching or profit-sharing). B (SIMPLE IRA) is incorrect because it specifically requires both employee and employer contributions. D (403(b)) is incorrect because these tax-sheltered annuity plans allow employee salary deferrals plus optional employer contributions, similar to 401(k) plans.
Understanding contribution structures across different retirement plans is frequently tested. The exam often presents scenarios asking which plan fits a specific business situation. SEP IRAs are popular for self-employed individuals and small businesses because they're simple to administer and have high contribution limits (up to $69,000 in 2024 or 25% of compensation). Remember the key distinction: SEP means employer-only funding. This concept connects to questions about small business retirement planning and suitability.
What is the maximum employee salary deferral contribution to a 401(k) plan for a 45-year-old participant in 2024?
B is correct. For 2024, the maximum employee salary deferral to a 401(k) is $23,000 for participants under age 50. Since this participant is 45 years old, they do not yet qualify for catch-up contributions.
A ($16,000) is incorrect because this is the SIMPLE IRA employee contribution limit for 2024. C ($30,500) is incorrect because this is the total 401(k) limit including the $7,500 catch-up contribution for participants age 50 and older. D ($7,000) is incorrect because this is the 2024 IRA contribution limit, not the 401(k) limit.
Contribution limits are heavily tested on the Series 65, and the exam loves to mix up limits across different plan types. Key 2024 limits to memorize: IRA ($7,000), SIMPLE IRA employee ($16,000), and 401(k) employee deferral ($23,000). Remember that participants age 50 and older get catch-up contributions: additional $1,000 for IRAs and $7,500 for 401(k) plans. The exam may present client scenarios where you must calculate total contribution capacity across multiple account types.
All of the following are exceptions to the 10% early withdrawal penalty from an IRA EXCEPT
D is correct. Purchase of a new vehicle is NOT an exception to the 10% early withdrawal penalty. While vehicle purchases may be necessary, they are not among the IRS-approved penalty exceptions for IRA distributions before age 59½.
A (First-time home purchase) is a valid exception allowing up to $10,000 penalty-free withdrawal. B (Qualified higher education expenses) is a valid exception for IRA withdrawals to pay for college or graduate school expenses. C (Medical expenses exceeding 7.5% of AGI) is a valid exception for unreimbursed medical expenses above this threshold.
Early withdrawal penalty exceptions appear frequently on the Series 65, often in EXCEPT question format like this one. The exam tests whether you can distinguish between valid exceptions (first-time home purchase, education, medical expenses, disability, death, substantially equal periodic payments) and everyday expenses that don't qualify. Remember that these are IRA-specific exceptions. Some exceptions differ for employer plans (like the separation from service at age 55+ exception for 401(k) plans, which doesn't apply to IRAs).
Nail Client Recommendations: 30% of the Exam
Client strategies and recommendations are the heaviest-weighted section. CertFuel focuses your study time on suitability rules, portfolio theory, and tax concepts that matter most.
Access Free BetaWhich type of retirement plan requires the employer to bear the investment risk?
C is correct. In a defined benefit plan (traditional pension), the employer promises a specific benefit at retirement based on a formula (typically considering salary and years of service). The employer bears all investment risk because they must fund the plan sufficiently to meet these promised benefits, regardless of investment performance.
A (Defined contribution), B (401(k)), and D (Profit-sharing) are all defined contribution plans where the employee bears the investment risk. In these plans, contributions are defined but the ultimate benefit depends on investment performance. If the account performs poorly, the employee receives less at retirement, not the employer.
The distinction between defined benefit and defined contribution plans is a core Series 65 concept that appears on nearly every exam. This tests fundamental understanding of pension risk allocation. Defined benefit plans are increasingly rare in the private sector because employers don't want to bear investment risk and longevity risk (the risk that retirees live longer than expected). Most modern employers offer defined contribution plans like 401(k)s, shifting investment risk to employees. Questions often test which plan type suits different employers and which provides guaranteed retirement income.
A 52-year-old client with a SEP IRA earning $100,000 asks about the maximum employer contribution for 2024. What is the maximum contribution?
A is correct. SEP IRA contributions are limited to the lesser of 25% of compensation or $69,000 (2024 limit). For this client earning $100,000, the calculation is $100,000 × 25% = $25,000. The age 50+ catch-up contribution does not apply to SEP IRAs.
B ($7,000) is incorrect because this is the standard IRA contribution limit for 2024. C ($8,000) is incorrect because this is the IRA limit with the age 50+ catch-up, but SEP IRAs don't have separate catch-up provisions. D ($69,000) is incorrect because while this is the maximum SEP IRA limit, it's not applicable here since 25% of $100,000 is only $25,000.
SEP IRA contribution calculations appear regularly on the Series 65. The formula is straightforward: up to 25% of compensation or $69,000 (2024), whichever is less. A common mistake is applying the IRA catch-up contribution rules to SEP IRAs. SEP IRAs don't have separate catch-up provisions because the contribution limits are already much higher than traditional or Roth IRAs. This makes SEP IRAs attractive for high-earning self-employed individuals who want to maximize retirement savings with minimal administrative burden.
Which of the following statements about Roth IRA required minimum distributions (RMDs) is correct?
C is correct. One of the key advantages of Roth IRAs is that they do not require RMDs during the account owner's lifetime. This allows the funds to continue growing tax-free for as long as the owner wishes, making Roth IRAs excellent wealth transfer vehicles.
A (Age 73) is incorrect because this is the RMD age for Traditional IRAs for those born 1951-1959, but it doesn't apply to Roth IRAs. B (Age 75) is incorrect because this is the future RMD age for Traditional IRAs for those born 1960 or later, but Roth IRAs never require lifetime RMDs. D (Age 59½) is incorrect because while this is the age for penalty-free withdrawals (along with the 5-year rule), it's not an RMD trigger for Roth IRAs.
This is a frequently tested distinction that many candidates miss. While Traditional IRAs and 401(k)s require RMDs starting at age 73 (for those born 1951-1959), Roth IRAs have no such requirement during the owner's lifetime. This makes Roth IRAs powerful estate planning tools for wealthy clients who don't need the money for living expenses. Note that Roth 401(k)s previously required RMDs, but SECURE Act 2.0 eliminated this requirement starting in 2024, matching Roth IRA treatment. However, Roth IRA beneficiaries (non-spouse) are subject to the 10-year distribution rule.
A SIMPLE IRA is designed for employers with how many employees?
B is correct. SIMPLE IRAs (Savings Incentive Match Plan for Employees) are designed for small employers with 100 or fewer employees who earned $5,000 or more during the preceding year. These plans offer a simplified retirement option with lower administrative costs than traditional 401(k) plans.
A (500 or fewer) is incorrect because employers with more than 100 eligible employees cannot establish SIMPLE IRAs. C (50 or fewer) is incorrect because this might confuse SIMPLE IRA rules with other small business retirement plan thresholds. D (10 or fewer) is incorrect because it's too restrictive. SIMPLE IRAs can be used by employers with up to 100 employees.
The 100-employee threshold for SIMPLE IRAs is a specific detail that appears on the Series 65. These plans are popular with small businesses because they're easier and less expensive to administer than 401(k) plans while still offering both employee contributions and mandatory employer contributions. The employer must either match employee contributions dollar-for-dollar up to 3% of compensation or make a 2% non-elective contribution for all eligible employees. Questions often test which plan type is appropriate for businesses of different sizes.
A client performs a 60-day rollover from one Traditional IRA to another. What are the tax consequences if completed within 60 days?
C is correct. When an IRA rollover is completed within 60 days, it is tax-free and penalty-free. The funds are treated as a continuation of the retirement account, not as a distribution. However, this type of rollover can only be done once per 12-month period for IRAs.
A (Taxable as ordinary income) is incorrect because properly completed rollovers are not taxable events. B (Tax-free but 10% penalty) is incorrect because no penalty applies to properly executed rollovers. D (Only earnings taxable) is incorrect because no portion is taxable when the rollover is completed within the 60-day window.
Rollover rules appear frequently on the Series 65, and understanding the 60-day window is crucial. While 60-day rollovers are permitted, direct trustee-to-trustee transfers are generally preferred because they avoid the 20% mandatory withholding that applies to distributions from employer plans and eliminate the risk of missing the 60-day deadline. If the 60-day deadline is missed, the entire amount becomes taxable and may be subject to the 10% early withdrawal penalty if under age 59½. Remember: 60-day rollovers from IRAs are limited to once per 12 months, but direct trustee-to-trustee transfers are unlimited.
Key Terms to Know
401(k) Plan
An employer-sponsored retirement plan allowing employees to make pre-tax or Roth (after-tax) salary deferrals, often wit...
Traditional IRA
An individual retirement account funded with pre-tax or after-tax contributions, offering tax-deferred growth with contr...
Roth IRA
An individual retirement account funded with after-tax contributions, offering tax-free qualified withdrawals in retirem...
Related Study Guides
Master this topic with in-depth articles covering concepts, strategies, and exam tips.