Common Mistakes to Avoid
Watch out for these exam traps that candidates frequently miss on Regulation of Investment Advisers questions:
Confusing SEC vs state registration thresholds ($100M)
Forgetting de minimis exemptions for out-of-state IAs
Not understanding investment adviser definition three-part test
Sample Practice Questions
Under the Investment Advisers Act of 1940, which THREE elements must ALL be present for a person to be defined as an investment adviser?
A is correct. The investment adviser definition uses the ABC or ABCS test, requiring ALL three prongs: (A) provides Advice or analysis about securities, (B) is in the Business of providing such advice regularly, and (C) receives Compensation (economic benefit) for the advice. The (S) reminds us the advice must be about Securities. All three elements must be present.
B (Series 65 license) is incorrect because holding a license is not part of the definition. Someone can meet the IA definition without any license, triggering the requirement to register. C (Registers with SEC) is incorrect because registration is a consequence of being an IA, not part of the definition itself. D (Offers financial planning) is incorrect because while financial planners may be IAs, these specific activities are not the three required elements of the definition.
The three-part ABC test is fundamental to investment adviser regulation and appears frequently on the Series 65. Understanding this definition helps you identify when someone must register as an IA versus when they're excluded or exempted. The exam often presents scenarios where one or two prongs are met but not all three, testing whether you remember that ALL elements are required. This concept appears in approximately 2-3 questions per exam and is listed as a common mistake in the NASAA outline.
An accountant provides occasional investment advice to clients as part of comprehensive financial services. Under what circumstances would this accountant be EXCLUDED from the definition of investment adviser?
B is correct. Accountants (along with Lawyers, Teachers, and Engineers, remembered by the acronym LATE) are excluded from the investment adviser definition if their securities advice is solely incidental to their primary profession. The key word is "incidental," meaning the advice is not the main focus of their business.
A (Never) is incorrect because accountants can qualify for the LATE exclusion. C (CPA designation) is incorrect because holding a professional designation doesn't automatically exclude someone. The exclusion depends on whether the advice is incidental, not on credentials. D (Less than $500) is incorrect because there is no fee threshold in the exclusion. Even if an accountant charges substantial fees, they're excluded if the advice remains incidental to their accounting practice.
The LATE exclusion (Lawyers, Accountants, Teachers, Engineers) is heavily tested on the Series 65 because it's a common source of confusion. The critical distinction is that these professionals are excluded only when securities advice is incidental to their primary profession. If an accountant starts marketing themselves as an investment adviser or makes securities advice a substantial part of their practice, they lose the exclusion and must register. Questions often test whether you understand that credentials alone don't create the exclusion. The incidental nature of the advice is what matters.
An investment adviser currently has $95 million in assets under management (AUM). The adviser would be:
D is correct. With $95 million in AUM, this adviser is a "mid-sized adviser" (between $25M and $100M) and generally must register with the state, not the SEC. Advisers don't become eligible for SEC registration until they reach $100 million in AUM.
B (Required SEC) is incorrect because the adviser hasn't reached the $110 million threshold where SEC registration becomes mandatory, nor even the $100 million threshold where it becomes optional. C (Choose between) is incorrect because mid-sized advisers between $25M and $100M typically must use state registration unless they qualify for specific exceptions like being a pension consultant or multi-state adviser. A (Exempt from all) is incorrect because this adviser must register somewhere. They don't qualify for exemptions like the de minimis exemption.
SEC versus state registration thresholds are among the most commonly tested topics on Series 65 and are explicitly listed as a common mistake in the NASAA outline. The key numbers to memorize are: below $25M (state only), $25M-$100M (generally state, "mid-sized"), $100M-$110M (SEC eligible, the "buffer zone"), and above $110M (SEC required). The exam frequently presents scenarios at $95M, $105M, or $115M to test whether you know the thresholds. Remember that mid-sized advisers stay with state registration unless they qualify for specific exceptions.
An SEC-registered investment adviser currently manages $115 million in AUM. Due to client withdrawals, the AUM drops to $85 million. What must the adviser do?
C is correct. The buffer zone rules require an SEC-registered adviser to switch to state registration when AUM falls below $90 million. This $90M threshold prevents advisers from bouncing between SEC and state registration with minor AUM fluctuations. Since the adviser dropped to $85 million (below $90M), they must de-register from the SEC and register with appropriate states.
D (Immediately) is partially correct about the action but incorrect about timing. The adviser should transition to state registration, not simply withdraw. A (Continue indefinitely) is incorrect because once AUM falls below $90 million, the adviser loses eligibility for SEC registration. B (Below $75 million) is incorrect because it references a non-existent threshold. The de-registration trigger is $90 million, not $75 million.
The buffer zone concept ($90M-$110M) is frequently tested because it demonstrates how the SEC prevents administrative burden from constant registration switching. Once you're SEC-registered and have at least $90M, you can stay with the SEC until you cross $110M upward (then you must stay) or fall below $90M downward (then you must leave). This question tests the #1 common mistake: confusing the $100M "eligibility" threshold with the $90M "must leave" threshold. Remember: $110M means must register with SEC, $100M means eligible for SEC, $90M means must leave SEC.
A federal covered investment adviser wants to do business in Texas but has no office there. What filing is required in Texas?
A is correct. Federal covered advisers (those registered with the SEC) must make a notice filing in any state where they do business. Notice filing requires submitting copies of SEC filings, paying a filing fee, and providing consent to service of process. It's a simplified filing compared to full state registration.
B (Full registration) is incorrect because federal covered advisers don't do full state registration. That's reserved for state-registered advisers. They only do notice filing. C (No filing required) is incorrect because even though the adviser is SEC-registered, states require notice filing to maintain awareness of who's doing business in their state. D (Exemption filing) is incorrect because the de minimis exemption applies to out-of-state advisers with 5 or fewer clients, not to federal covered advisers doing business in a state.
Notice filing is a key concept that appears on virtually every Series 65 exam. The distinction is important: federal covered advisers don't escape state oversight entirely; they must file notices in states where they conduct business. This is lighter than full state registration but still gives state administrators visibility. The exam often presents scenarios where an SEC-registered adviser expands to new states, testing whether you know they need notice filing (not full registration) in those states. Understanding notice filing also helps distinguish between federal and state regulatory authority.
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Access Free BetaAn investment adviser based in California has no office in Nevada but has 4 individual clients who are Nevada residents. The adviser would be:
C is correct. The de minimis exemption allows an out-of-state investment adviser to avoid registration in a state if the adviser has no office in that state AND has 5 or fewer clients who are residents of that state in the last 12 months. With only 4 Nevada clients and no Nevada office, this adviser qualifies for the exemption.
A (Required to register) is incorrect because the adviser falls below the 5-client threshold that triggers registration. B (Register with SEC) is incorrect because the de minimis exemption already solves the Nevada registration issue, and nothing in the facts suggests the adviser meets SEC registration thresholds. D (Prohibited) is incorrect because advisers can have clients in states where they're not registered, as long as they qualify for exemptions like de minimis.
The de minimis exemption is explicitly listed as a common mistake in the NASAA outline and appears on most Series 65 exams. The key elements are: (1) NO office in the state, (2) 5 or FEWER clients in the last 12 months, and (3) the clients must be individual residents (not institutional investors, which have different rules). The exam loves to test boundary cases: exactly 5 clients (still exempt), 6 clients (must register), or scenarios where the adviser has an office (disqualified from exemption regardless of client count). This exemption is critical for advisers who serve clients across state lines without establishing offices everywhere.
All of the following are excluded from the definition of investment adviser EXCEPT
B is correct. A broker-dealer is excluded from the IA definition only if advice is solely incidental to their BD business AND they receive no special compensation for the advice. If the BD receives special compensation for advice, they lose the exclusion and must register as an investment adviser. This is the outlier that does NOT qualify for exclusion.
A (Teacher) is incorrect because it's a valid exclusion under the LATE exclusion (Lawyers, Accountants, Teachers, Engineers) when advice is incidental. C (Bank) is incorrect because banks and bank holding companies are excluded from the IA definition due to separate federal banking regulation. D (Publisher) is incorrect because bona fide publishers of publications with general circulation are excluded, as they're providing general information rather than personalized advice.
This "EXCEPT" question tests comprehensive knowledge of IA exclusions, which is critical for the Series 65. The broker-dealer exclusion is particularly tricky because it has two requirements: (1) advice must be solely incidental to BD business, AND (2) no special compensation received for advice. If either condition fails, the BD must also register as an IA (dual registration). Many broker-dealers today are dually registered because they offer advisory services for separate fees. Understanding when exclusions apply versus when registration is required helps you navigate the complex regulatory landscape where firms may wear multiple hats.
An investment adviser registered with the SEC must file its annual Form ADV updating amendment within how many days after the end of its fiscal year?
B is correct. Investment advisers (both SEC-registered and state-registered) must file their annual updating amendment to Form ADV within 90 days after the end of their fiscal year. This ensures the SEC and states have current information about the adviser's business, conflicts of interest, and disciplinary history.
D (30 days) is incorrect. While 30 days is relevant to other deadlines (such as when Form ADV becomes effective after initial filing), it's not the deadline for annual amendments. A (60 days) is incorrect. This is a common wrong answer designed to catch those who confuse various SEC filing deadlines. C (120 days) is incorrect because it exceeds the required timeframe and would result in late filing penalties.
Form ADV filing requirements appear on virtually every Series 65 exam. The 90-day deadline for annual amendments is specifically tested because it's a concrete, memorizable requirement that demonstrates knowledge of ongoing compliance obligations. Beyond the annual filing, advisers must also file "other-than-annual" amendments promptly when material information changes (such as new disciplinary events or changes in business practices). The exam often tests whether you can distinguish between the annual 90-day deadline and the prompt filing required for material changes. Form ADV is the foundation of investment adviser transparency.
A state-registered investment adviser has discretionary authority over client accounts but does NOT have custody of client assets. What is the minimum net worth requirement under NASAA Model Rules?
D is correct. Under NASAA Model Rules, a state-registered investment adviser with discretionary authority (but no custody) must maintain a minimum net worth of $10,000. The financial requirements reflect the level of control and risk the adviser has over client assets.
A ($35,000) is incorrect because that's the minimum net worth requirement for advisers who have custody of client assets, not merely discretionary authority. B (Positive net worth) is incorrect because that's only required for advisers who have neither custody nor discretionary authority. C (No minimum) is incorrect because all investment advisers have some minimum net worth requirement based on their activities, with discretionary authority triggering the $10,000 requirement.
Net worth requirements for state-registered investment advisers are tested regularly on the Series 65. The three-tier structure is: $35,000 for custody, $10,000 for discretion (no custody), and positive net worth for neither custody nor discretion. These requirements ensure advisers have sufficient financial stability relative to their level of control over client assets. The exam often presents scenarios describing an adviser's activities and asks you to identify the correct minimum. Remember: custody requires the most ($35k), discretion alone requires less ($10k), and neither requires just positive. This concept also connects to bonding requirements, as advisers can post a surety bond if they can't meet the net worth threshold.
Which of the following investment advisers would be permitted to register with the SEC despite having less than $100 million in assets under management?
B is correct. Pension consultants are a specific exception to the mid-sized adviser rules. If a pension consultant has at least $200 million in pension plan assets under management, they may register with the SEC even though they're below the general $100 million threshold for eligibility. This exception recognizes the specialized nature and scale of pension consulting.
A (10 states) is incorrect. While multi-state advisers registered in 15 or more states can register with the SEC, this adviser is only in 10 states and doesn't meet the exception. C (Accredited investors) is incorrect because managing money for accredited investors doesn't create an exception to AUM thresholds. The $100M threshold applies regardless of client type. D (5 years in business) is incorrect because longevity in business doesn't create an exemption from AUM requirements. The exceptions are based on specific characteristics like pension consulting or multi-state presence, not time in business.
Mid-sized adviser exceptions are an important but often overlooked topic on the Series 65. While most advisers between $25M and $100M must register with states, several exceptions allow SEC registration: pension consultants with at least $200M in pension assets, multi-state advisers registered in 15 or more states, advisers with principal offices in New York, and internet advisers providing advice exclusively through interactive websites. The pension consultant exception is particularly testable because the $200M pension asset threshold is different from the general $100M AUM threshold. Understanding these exceptions helps explain why some smaller advisers are SEC-registered while larger ones remain state-registered.
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