Common Mistakes to Avoid
Watch out for these exam traps that candidates frequently miss on Portfolio Management Styles questions:
Confusing strategic vs tactical asset allocation
Forgetting passive management typically has lower fees
Not understanding style drift implications
Sample Practice Questions
Which of the following is the PRIMARY advantage of passive investment management compared to active management?
A is correct. Passive management typically has significantly lower fees and operating expenses because it involves minimal trading activity and no need for expensive research teams or active portfolio managers. This cost advantage is one of the key benefits of index investing.
B (Ability to outperform market benchmarks) is incorrect because passive management aims to match, not beat, the market benchmark. C (Superior returns during bear markets) is incorrect because passive strategies track the market both up and down without defensive positioning. D (Greater flexibility to avoid declining sectors) is incorrect because passive management maintains predetermined allocations regardless of market conditions.
Understanding the cost differences between active and passive management appears frequently on the Series 65 exam. This concept connects to discussions of expense ratios, investment adviser compensation, and client suitability. Remember that while active management offers the potential to outperform, passive management provides cost certainty and typically lower fees, which can significantly impact long-term returns. The exam often tests whether you can identify the appropriate management style based on client needs and cost sensitivity.
Strategic asset allocation is BEST described as an approach that establishes:
B is correct. Strategic asset allocation establishes long-term target allocations based on the client's investment policy statement (IPS), reflecting their risk tolerance, time horizon, and investment objectives. This approach follows a buy-and-hold philosophy with periodic rebalancing to maintain the target allocations. Research shows that strategic asset allocation is the primary determinant of portfolio performance, accounting for over 90% of return variability.
A (Short-term portfolio adjustments based on market forecasts) describes tactical asset allocation, not strategic. C (Concentration in single maturity bonds) describes a bullet bond strategy, not asset allocation. D (Increasing equity exposure as portfolio values rise) describes CPPI (constant-proportion portfolio insurance), a dynamic allocation strategy.
The distinction between strategic and tactical asset allocation is heavily tested on the Series 65 exam. Strategic allocation is fundamental to portfolio construction and ties directly to the investment policy statement, suitability analysis, and fiduciary duty concepts. The exam frequently presents scenarios where you must identify which approach is being used or recommend the appropriate one for a client situation. Remember that strategic allocation is long-term and policy-based, while tactical allocation involves short-term market timing attempts.
A portfolio manager who focuses on purchasing stocks with high price-to-earnings ratios, strong revenue growth, and companies that reinvest earnings rather than pay dividends is MOST likely following which investment style?
D is correct. Growth investing focuses on companies with high growth potential, typically characterized by high price-to-earnings ratios, strong revenue growth, and reinvestment of earnings to fuel expansion rather than paying dividends. Growth investors seek capital appreciation rather than current income.
A (Value investing) is incorrect because value investors seek low P/E ratios and underpriced stocks trading below intrinsic value. B (Defensive investing) is incorrect because defensive strategies focus on stable, non-cyclical companies that provide protection during downturns. C (Income investing) is incorrect because income investors prioritize dividend-paying stocks, while the described style focuses on companies that reinvest earnings.
Growth versus value investing styles are core concepts on the Series 65 exam, often appearing in client suitability questions. Understanding these styles helps you match investment strategies to client objectives. Growth investing suits clients seeking capital appreciation with higher risk tolerance and longer time horizons, while value investing appeals to more conservative investors seeking margin of safety. The exam may test your ability to identify characteristics of each style or recommend appropriate styles for different client profiles. This concept also connects to the Morningstar style box classification system.
An investment adviser who shifts from primarily holding technology stocks to primarily holding utility and consumer staples stocks is MOST likely demonstrating:
B is correct. Style drift occurs when a portfolio manager deviates from the stated investment style or strategy, such as shifting from growth-oriented technology stocks to defensive utility and consumer staples stocks. This represents a significant change in investment approach that may not align with the client's original objectives or the mandate outlined in the investment policy statement.
A (Strategic rebalancing) is incorrect because rebalancing involves returning to target allocations, not fundamentally changing the investment style. C (Tactical asset allocation) is incorrect because while tactical adjustments involve short-term deviations from strategic targets, the described shift represents a fundamental style change rather than a temporary adjustment. D (Dollar cost averaging) is incorrect because it refers to investing fixed amounts at regular intervals, not changing investment styles.
Style drift is an important concept for the Series 65 exam because it relates to fiduciary duty, disclosure requirements, and maintaining consistency with client objectives. Investment advisers must monitor their portfolios to ensure they remain aligned with the stated investment strategy. Significant style drift may require client notification and consent, as it changes the risk-return characteristics of the portfolio. The exam often tests whether you recognize style drift as a potential compliance issue and understand when it requires disclosure. This concept connects to performance evaluation, as clients hire managers for specific expertise that should remain consistent.
A portfolio that invests 80% of assets in broad market index funds and 20% in actively managed sector-specific funds is BEST described as using which approach?
D is correct. The core-satellite approach combines a passive core (typically broad market index funds representing the bulk of the portfolio) with active satellite positions (actively managed funds seeking to generate alpha). This strategy provides the cost efficiency and diversification of passive investing while allowing for potential outperformance through active management in specific areas.
A (Tactical asset allocation) is incorrect because tactical allocation involves temporary deviations from strategic targets based on market conditions, not a permanent core-satellite structure. B (Pure passive management) is incorrect because the portfolio includes actively managed funds, not just passive index funds. C (Constant-proportion portfolio insurance) is incorrect because CPPI is a dynamic allocation strategy that adjusts equity exposure based on portfolio value relative to a floor, not a core-satellite structure.
The core-satellite approach appears on the Series 65 exam as a practical strategy that balances the benefits of passive and active management. This concept demonstrates understanding of portfolio construction techniques and cost-conscious investing while still seeking potential alpha. The exam may test your ability to identify this approach or recommend it for clients who want market exposure with selective opportunities for outperformance. This strategy also connects to discussions of investment costs, as it limits expensive active management to a portion of the portfolio where skill might add value.
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Access Free BetaWhich of the following statements about index investing is CORRECT?
C is correct. Index investing seeks to replicate the performance of a specific market benchmark (such as the S&P 500) by holding the same securities in the same proportions as the index. The goal is to match, not beat, the benchmark's return while minimizing costs and tracking error.
A (Attempt to outperform their benchmark) is incorrect because index funds aim to match, not outperform, the benchmark. B (Higher turnover rates than actively managed funds) is incorrect because index funds have much lower turnover since they only trade when the index composition changes, while active funds frequently buy and sell based on manager decisions. D (Require extensive research teams) is incorrect because index funds follow predetermined rules based on index composition and require minimal research compared to active management.
Understanding index investing fundamentals is essential for the Series 65 exam because index funds are widely recommended investment vehicles. This concept appears in questions about investment strategies, cost comparisons, and suitability analysis. The exam tests whether you understand that index funds provide market returns at low cost, making them suitable for cost-conscious investors or as core holdings in diversified portfolios. This topic connects to passive management, expense ratios, and the efficient market hypothesis. Remember that index funds are transparent, tax-efficient, and eliminate manager-specific risk.
Tactical asset allocation differs from strategic asset allocation primarily in that tactical allocation involves:
C is correct. Tactical asset allocation involves making short-term deviations from strategic target allocations to capitalize on perceived market opportunities or avoid anticipated risks. This more active approach attempts to enhance returns through market timing or temporary over/underweighting of asset classes.
A (Establishing long-term targets) describes strategic asset allocation, not tactical. B (Maintaining fixed percentage allocations through rebalancing) describes the constant-mix strategy or strategic allocation maintenance, not tactical adjustments. D (Strict buy-and-hold philosophy) describes strategic allocation or pure buy-and-hold strategies, which are the opposite of tactical allocation's active approach.
The strategic versus tactical asset allocation distinction is frequently tested on the Series 65 exam and represents one of the common mistakes identified in the exam outline. This concept appears in portfolio management questions, client suitability scenarios, and discussions of investment philosophy. Understanding the difference helps you evaluate whether an adviser's approach aligns with client expectations and risk parameters. Strategic allocation is policy-driven and long-term, while tactical allocation involves active decision-making and timing risk. The exam often presents scenarios where you must identify which approach is appropriate or being implemented.
An investment strategy that involves purchasing securities that have exhibited strong recent performance, expecting the trend to continue, is known as:
A is correct. Momentum investing is a strategy based on the belief that securities with strong recent performance will continue to perform well, at least in the near term. Momentum investors buy securities showing upward price trends and sell those with downward trends, following the principle that "the trend is your friend."
B (Contrarian investing) is the opposite approach, buying securities that have declined or are unpopular, betting on a reversal. C (Value investing) focuses on purchasing underpriced securities trading below intrinsic value based on fundamental analysis, not recent price momentum. D (Defensive investing) emphasizes stable, low-volatility securities that perform relatively well during downturns, regardless of recent momentum.
Momentum investing appears on the Series 65 exam as a technical analysis-based strategy that contrasts with fundamental analysis approaches. Understanding momentum investing helps you recognize different investment philosophies and their underlying assumptions. The exam may test your ability to identify momentum strategies or understand their characteristics, such as higher turnover, sensitivity to market trends, and potential for rapid gains or losses. This concept connects to discussions of investment styles, risk factors, and the debate between technical and fundamental analysis approaches to portfolio management.
A constant-mix dynamic asset allocation strategy would require an investor to take which action after a significant market decline?
B is correct. A constant-mix strategy maintains fixed percentage allocations (such as 60% equities, 40% bonds) by rebalancing when market movements cause deviations from targets. After a market decline, equities would represent a smaller percentage of the portfolio, requiring the investor to buy equities (and sell bonds) to restore the target allocation. This creates a contrarian "buy low, sell high" discipline.
A (Sell equities to reduce risk) is incorrect because constant-mix requires buying the asset class that declined to maintain percentages. C (Maintain current positions) describes buy-and-hold, not constant-mix rebalancing. D (Shift entirely to fixed income) is incorrect because constant-mix maintains predetermined allocations across multiple asset classes rather than completely abandoning one.
Understanding dynamic asset allocation strategies like constant-mix appears on the Series 65 exam when testing portfolio management techniques. This concept demonstrates how different rebalancing approaches respond to market movements and connects to broader discussions of strategic versus tactical allocation. The exam may present scenarios requiring you to identify which strategy is being used or recommend an appropriate approach. Constant-mix works well in oscillating markets because it systematically buys assets that have declined and sells those that have risen, enforcing investment discipline. This contrasts with CPPI, which increases equity exposure as markets rise.
Which of the following investment approaches would be MOST appropriate for a portfolio manager attempting to position holdings based on expected phases of the economic cycle?
B is correct. Sector rotation is an active investment strategy that involves shifting portfolio holdings among different economic sectors based on expected phases of the business cycle. Managers using this approach overweight cyclical sectors (like technology and consumer discretionary) during economic expansions and shift to defensive sectors (like utilities and consumer staples) during contractions. This strategy requires economic forecasting and market timing skills.
A (Dollar cost averaging) is a strategy for investing fixed amounts at regular intervals to reduce timing risk, not related to economic cycles. C (Bond laddering) involves staggered bond maturities to manage interest rate and reinvestment risk, not economic cycle positioning. D (Core-satellite approach) combines passive core holdings with active satellite positions, but does not specifically focus on economic cycle timing.
Sector rotation appears on the Series 65 exam as an active management technique tied to macroeconomic analysis and business cycle concepts. This strategy connects multiple exam topics including economic indicators, industry analysis, and portfolio management. Understanding sector rotation helps you recognize active management approaches and their underlying assumptions about market efficiency and manager skill. The exam may test your ability to identify when sector rotation is appropriate or understand which sectors typically perform best at different economic stages. Remember that cyclical sectors outperform during expansions, while defensive sectors provide relative stability during contractions.
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