Common Mistakes to Avoid
Watch out for these exam traps that candidates frequently miss on Fiduciary Obligations questions:
Confusing fiduciary vs suitability standard
Forgetting fiduciary duty applies to all client interactions
Not understanding duty of loyalty prohibitions
Sample Practice Questions
Which of the following BEST describes the fiduciary duty owed by investment advisers to their clients?
B is correct. Investment advisers owe a fiduciary duty to their clients that includes both a duty of care (provide suitable advice with reasonable diligence) and a duty of loyalty (put client interests first, no self-dealing). This is a comprehensive obligation covering the entire adviser-client relationship.
A (Duty of care alone) is incorrect because it only describes one component of fiduciary duty, missing the equally important duty of loyalty. C (Suitability standard) is incorrect because suitability is the lower standard that applies to broker-dealers, not the higher fiduciary standard for investment advisers. D (Disclosure) is incorrect because while disclosure is required, it's part of the duty of loyalty and doesn't fully capture the fiduciary obligation. The duty of care cannot be satisfied by disclosure alone.
Understanding the fiduciary standard is fundamental to the Series 65 exam and real-world advisory practice. This question tests whether you grasp the two-part nature of fiduciary duty: care (competence and diligence) and loyalty (client interests first). The exam frequently tests this distinction, especially comparing fiduciary duty to the suitability standard. Remember: investment advisers must meet a higher standard than broker-dealers because they're acting as fiduciaries throughout the entire relationship.
An investment adviser tells a client that by signing an advisory agreement, the client agrees to waive any claims arising from the adviser's negligence. This provision is:
C is correct. Hedge clauses that attempt to waive compliance with securities laws, waive fiduciary duties, or limit liability for fraud, negligence, or violations are prohibited. An adviser cannot contractually eliminate their duty to exercise reasonable care, even with client consent.
A (Acceptable if voluntary) is incorrect because prohibited provisions remain prohibited regardless of whether the client signs voluntarily. B (Acceptable for institutional clients) is incorrect because hedge clauses attempting to waive liability for negligence are prohibited for all clients, not just retail. D (Savings clause) is incorrect because while a savings clause is required if any exculpatory language is present, it cannot cure a clause that purports to waive liability for negligence.
Hedge clause questions appear regularly on the Series 65 exam, testing whether advisers understand they cannot contract out of their fiduciary responsibilities. The key point is that while limited hedge clauses for uncontrollable events may be acceptable, anything attempting to waive the duty of care or limit liability for the adviser's own negligence is always prohibited. This protects clients from signing away their fundamental protections. Questions often present seemingly reasonable contract terms that are actually prohibited.
Under the Prudent Investor Rule, which of the following statements is TRUE regarding a fiduciary's investment decisions?
D is correct. The Prudent Investor Rule requires that prudence be judged at the total portfolio level, not on individual investments in isolation. This principle, based on Modern Portfolio Theory, recognizes that portfolio-level diversification is what matters for risk management.
A (Each investment judged independently) is incorrect because this contradicts the portfolio-level approach. An individual investment might appear risky in isolation but could reduce overall portfolio risk through diversification. B (Certain categories prohibited) is incorrect because the Prudent Investor Rule explicitly states that no categorical restrictions apply. Any investment type can be appropriate depending on the client's circumstances. C (Outcome, not process) is incorrect because prudence is judged by the process and reasoning at the time of the decision, not by hindsight based on results.
The Prudent Investor Rule is heavily tested on the Series 65, particularly the shift from old "prudent man" rules that categorically prohibited certain investments. Understanding the five key principles helps you answer questions about trustee responsibilities, appropriate investment strategies, and fiduciary standards. The exam often presents scenarios where an individual investment seems risky, testing whether you know it can still be prudent if it fits the overall portfolio strategy. This principle underpins modern portfolio management.
What is the PRIMARY difference between the fiduciary standard applicable to investment advisers and the suitability standard applicable to broker-dealers?
A is correct. The fundamental distinction is scope: fiduciary duty applies to the entire ongoing relationship between adviser and client, covering all aspects of the relationship, not just individual recommendations. In contrast, the suitability standard (and even Regulation Best Interest for broker-dealers) applies primarily to specific recommendations.
B (Disclosure) is incorrect because both standards require disclosure of material information, though the fiduciary standard is more comprehensive. C (Client type) is incorrect because fiduciary duty applies to all advisory clients regardless of whether they're retail or institutional, and suitability applies based on the role (BD vs IA), not client type. D (Authorization type) is incorrect because this doesn't capture the core difference between the standards. Both may require authorization for certain activities.
This is identified as the #1 most commonly missed concept in fiduciary obligations. The exam frequently tests whether candidates understand that fiduciary duty is pervasive and ongoing, not limited to the moment of recommendation. This means advisers must consider client interests when selecting custodians, charging fees, managing conflicts, and in every other aspect of the relationship. Broker-dealers under Regulation Best Interest have a more limited obligation tied to recommendations, not the entire relationship.
An investment adviser wishes to charge a performance-based fee to a client. Under the Investment Advisers Act, this is generally prohibited EXCEPT for clients who have:
B is correct. Performance fees are generally prohibited to protect clients from advisers taking excessive risks to boost compensation. However, qualified clients are permitted. A qualified client has either $1.1 million in assets under management with the adviser OR $2.2 million in net worth (excluding primary residence).
A ($500,000 with adviser) is incorrect because this threshold is too low and doesn't match the qualified client definition. C ($5 million total assets) is incorrect because while this describes a qualified purchaser for other purposes, the performance fee exception uses the lower qualified client thresholds. D (Written acknowledgment) is incorrect because simply acknowledging the fee structure doesn't create an exception. The client must meet specific financial thresholds demonstrating they can bear the risks of performance-based compensation.
Performance fees are a high-frequency exam topic because they create a conflict of interest. The adviser might take excessive risks to maximize their own compensation rather than acting in the client's best interest. The qualified client thresholds (updated in 2021) presume that wealthy, sophisticated investors can evaluate these risks. Remember the two paths: $1.1M with the adviser (not total assets) or $2.2M net worth. Questions often test whether you know the specific amounts and that primary residence is excluded from net worth.
Conquer Regulations: 30% of Your Score
Laws and regulations match client recommendations as the most heavily tested area. CertFuel's adaptive system ensures you memorize registration rules, prohibited practices, and fiduciary duties.
Access Free BetaUnder the duty of loyalty, an investment adviser is prohibited from engaging in which of the following WITHOUT full disclosure and client consent?
C is correct. Principal transactions (selling securities from the adviser's own account to a client) create a direct conflict between the adviser's self-interest and the client's interest. This is self-dealing, which is prohibited under the duty of loyalty unless there is full and fair disclosure AND client consent. The adviser must disclose the conflict and obtain authorization.
A (Recommending suitable securities) is incorrect because this is the adviser's job and doesn't violate the duty of loyalty, provided the securities truly are suitable. B (Different fees based on account size) is incorrect because tiered fee schedules are acceptable business practice and don't constitute a loyalty violation if properly disclosed. D (Using third-party research) is incorrect because advisers may use external research, though soft dollar arrangements must be properly disclosed.
The duty of loyalty and prohibition on self-dealing appear frequently on the Series 65 exam. This tests understanding that advisers cannot put their own interests ahead of client interests. Principal transactions are particularly problematic because the adviser profits from the markup when selling to the client. Questions often present scenarios where the conflict seems minor or the adviser claims the transaction benefits the client, testing whether you know that disclosure and consent are still required. Remember: fiduciary duty applies to ALL client interactions.
An investment adviser uses soft dollar arrangements to obtain research and market data by directing client trades to a particular broker-dealer. Which of the following is TRUE regarding this practice?
B is correct. Soft dollar arrangements fall under Section 28(e) safe harbor, which permits advisers to pay higher commissions in exchange for research, market data, and trade execution services, provided these items meet the eligible criteria and the arrangement is disclosed in Form ADV. This balances the adviser's need for research tools with transparency to clients.
A (Always prohibited) is incorrect because soft dollars are permitted under Section 28(e) when used properly for eligible items. C (Client discount required) is incorrect because the nature of soft dollars is that higher commissions are paid, not lower. The trade-off is that the adviser receives research that benefits clients. D (Any business expense) is incorrect because Section 28(e) has strict limits on what qualifies. Computer hardware, office equipment, rent, salaries, travel, and entertainment are NOT eligible for soft dollar payments.
Soft dollar questions test your understanding of how advisers can receive research while maintaining their fiduciary duty. The key is knowing what's eligible (research, market data, analyst discussions, trade execution) versus what's not (furniture, Bloomberg terminals, office expenses). The exam often presents borderline items or mixed-use products to test whether you know the rules. Disclosure in Form ADV is critical because it allows clients to understand that their commissions may be higher to pay for the adviser's research.
An investment adviser has a duty of best execution when executing client trades. Which of the following factors should the adviser consider when seeking best execution?
B is correct. Best execution is a duty to seek the most favorable terms reasonably available under the circumstances. This requires evaluating multiple factors including execution speed, price improvement opportunities, commission costs, and market liquidity. It's a holistic assessment, not just finding the cheapest commission.
A (Only commission costs) is incorrect because best execution considers total value, not just explicit costs. A higher commission might be justified if it results in better price execution. C (Research from soft dollars) is incorrect because while soft dollar research is permitted, the adviser cannot sacrifice best execution just to obtain research. The best execution duty remains paramount. D (Lowest commission) is incorrect for the same reason as A. The lowest commission might result in poor execution, delayed fills, or worse prices that cost the client more than the commission savings.
Best execution questions appear regularly on the Series 65 exam, testing whether you understand it's about total value, not just the cheapest option. This connects to the duty of care: the adviser must use diligence and skill to get clients good execution. The exam often presents scenarios where an adviser uses a higher-cost broker or directs trades to a specific firm, testing whether you know when this violates best execution. Remember: if a client directs brokerage to a specific firm, the adviser must disclose they may not achieve best execution.
Which of the following statements about an investment adviser's fiduciary duty is TRUE?
B is correct. The duty of care requires that advisers provide suitable advice based on reasonable diligence, care, and skill. This duty cannot be satisfied merely by disclosing potential problems. The adviser must actually act with competence and prudence. Disclosure alone is not enough to meet the duty of care.
A (Disclosure satisfies duty) is incorrect because while disclosure is part of the duty of loyalty, it doesn't eliminate the duty of care. An adviser cannot disclose their way out of the obligation to provide competent, suitable advice. C (Only recommendations) is incorrect because fiduciary duty applies to the entire relationship, including fee arrangements, custody selection, and all other aspects of the adviser-client relationship. D (Equivalent to suitability) is incorrect because fiduciary duty is a higher standard than suitability or Regulation Best Interest. It encompasses more and applies more broadly.
This question tests a critical nuance: disclosure is necessary but not sufficient to satisfy fiduciary duty. Many candidates mistakenly believe that if an adviser discloses a conflict, they've met their obligation. The exam frequently tests this misconception. Remember the two-part test: duty of care (competent advice, reasonable diligence) and duty of loyalty (client interests first, full disclosure). Neither can be shortcut by disclosure. This distinguishes true fiduciary responsibility from mere suitability or best interest standards.
Under the Prudent Investor Rule, a fiduciary's investment decisions will be judged based on:
C is correct. The Prudent Investor Rule judges prudence based on the process and reasoning at the time the investment decision was made, not based on outcomes. This prevents second-guessing decisions with hindsight. A fiduciary who follows a sound process cannot be liable simply because an investment loses value due to unforeseen events.
A (Actual returns) is incorrect because judging by results would penalize fiduciaries for unforeseeable market events and encourage overly conservative strategies. B (Benchmark performance) is incorrect because while benchmarking is a useful tool, the Prudent Investor Rule doesn't require outperformance. A properly diversified portfolio appropriate for the client's goals is prudent even if it underperforms a benchmark. D (Avoiding all losses) is incorrect because this would be impossible and would force fiduciaries into cash-only positions. Risk taking is appropriate when aligned with client objectives.
This principle protects fiduciaries who make well-reasoned decisions that happen to lose money due to market volatility or other unpredictable events. The Series 65 exam tests whether you understand that prudence is about process, not results. Questions often present scenarios where investments performed poorly, asking whether the fiduciary breached their duty. The correct answer typically focuses on whether proper analysis and documentation occurred at the time of purchase, not whether the investment later declined. This encourages thoughtful decision-making rather than fear-based paralysis.
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