Common Mistakes to Avoid
Watch out for these exam traps that candidates frequently miss on Cash and Cash Equivalents questions:
Confusing money market funds with money market accounts
Forgetting T-bill maturities are 1 year or less
Not knowing that commercial paper is unsecured
Sample Practice Questions
What is the maximum maturity for a Treasury bill (T-bill)?
C is correct. Treasury bills have maturities ranging from 4 weeks to 52 weeks (1 year or less). T-bills are the shortest-maturity U.S. government securities and serve as the benchmark for the risk-free rate.
A (90 days) is incorrect because while 90-day T-bills exist, this is not the maximum maturity. B (270 days) is incorrect because this confuses commercial paper's maximum maturity with T-bill maturities. D (2 years) is incorrect because securities with maturities beyond 1 year are Treasury notes, not Treasury bills.
T-bill maturities appear regularly on the Series 65 exam. This addresses the common mistake: "Forgetting T-bill maturities are 1 year or less." Understanding this helps you distinguish T-bills from Treasury notes (2-10 years) and Treasury bonds (20-30 years). T-bills are money market instruments precisely because their maturities are 1 year or less. This connects to questions about appropriate investments for clients needing short-term liquidity or capital preservation.
Commercial paper is exempt from SEC registration requirements if its maturity does NOT exceed:
C is correct. Commercial paper with a maximum maturity of 270 days is exempt from SEC registration under the Securities Act of 1933. This exemption reflects the short-term, low-risk nature of commercial paper as a money market instrument.
A (90 days) and B (180 days) are incorrect because they understate the maximum maturity for the SEC exemption. D (365 days) is incorrect because it exceeds the actual 270-day limit. Most commercial paper has maturities between 30 and 90 days, but the exemption extends to 270 days.
The 270-day rule for commercial paper is a specific detail frequently tested on the Series 65. It appears in questions about money market instruments, exempt securities, and registration requirements. Understanding this helps you recognize which short-term corporate debt qualifies as commercial paper versus longer-term bonds requiring registration. This connects to understanding why commercial paper is considered a money market instrument and why it trades at yields slightly higher than T-bills despite its short maturity.
Which of the following is a key characteristic that distinguishes commercial paper from Treasury bills?
B is correct. Commercial paper is unsecured short-term corporate debt, meaning it is not backed by collateral. Investors rely on the creditworthiness of the issuing corporation. This makes credit quality critical when evaluating commercial paper investments.
A (Secured by collateral) is incorrect because this is backwards. Commercial paper is specifically unsecured, which is why it's typically issued only by financially strong corporations. C (Pays periodic interest) is incorrect because commercial paper, like T-bills, is sold at a discount and matures at par rather than paying periodic coupons. D (Issued by government) is incorrect because commercial paper is issued by corporations, not government entities.
This addresses the common mistake: "Not knowing that commercial paper is unsecured." The exam frequently tests whether candidates understand the risk characteristics of money market instruments. Because commercial paper is unsecured, it carries more credit risk than T-bills and typically offers slightly higher yields as compensation. This concept appears in questions about suitable money market investments for conservative clients and in risk assessment scenarios. Remember: unsecured means no collateral backing the debt.
A client asks about the difference between a money market fund and a money market deposit account. Which statement is TRUE?
A is correct. Money market deposit accounts (MMDAs) are bank products insured by the FDIC up to $250,000 per depositor, per bank. Money market funds are investment company products regulated under the Investment Company Act of 1940 and are NOT FDIC insured. They are securities, not bank deposits.
B (Funds insured, accounts not) is incorrect because it reverses the correct answer. C (Both FDIC insured) is incorrect because money market funds lack FDIC insurance. D (Neither insured) is incorrect because money market accounts, being bank deposits, do have FDIC insurance.
This directly addresses the #1 common mistake: "Confusing money market funds with money market accounts." The exam frequently tests this distinction because many clients (and even some advisers) confuse these similarly named but fundamentally different products. Money market funds are pooled investment vehicles holding short-term securities, while money market accounts are simply bank savings accounts with limited transactions. Understanding this helps you provide accurate advice about safety and insurance coverage. This appears in suitability questions and in discussions about capital preservation strategies.
Negotiable certificates of deposit (CDs) differ from regular bank CDs primarily because negotiable CDs:
D is correct. Negotiable CDs (also called jumbo CDs) can be traded in the secondary market, providing liquidity before maturity. Regular bank CDs cannot be traded and typically incur penalties for early withdrawal. This tradability is the key distinguishing feature.
A (Higher rates) is incorrect because while negotiable CDs often have competitive rates, this is not their defining characteristic. B (Longer maturities) is incorrect because both types can have similar maturity ranges. C (Fully FDIC insured) is incorrect because FDIC insurance is limited to $250,000 per depositor, per bank, and negotiable CDs typically have minimums of $100,000 or more (often $1 million+), so amounts above $250,000 are not insured.
Understanding negotiable CDs appears on the Series 65 in questions about money market instruments and liquidity. The ability to trade in the secondary market distinguishes negotiable CDs from regular CDs, making them more like other money market securities. This concept connects to discussions about institutional money market investments and understanding that large-denomination CDs exceed FDIC coverage limits. Questions often test whether you know that "negotiable" means tradable, not that better terms can be negotiated.
Master Investment Vehicles: 25% of Your Exam
Investment products make up the largest section of the Series 65. CertFuel targets the specific distinctions between bonds, stocks, funds, and alternatives that appear most often.
Access Free BetaBankers' acceptances are primarily used in which type of transaction?
B is correct. Bankers' acceptances are time drafts primarily used for international trade, especially importing and exporting goods. A bank guarantees payment, substituting the bank's credit for the importer's credit, which facilitates cross-border commerce. Typical maturities are 1 to 6 months.
A (Domestic corporate financing) is incorrect because corporations typically use commercial paper for short-term domestic borrowing. C (Municipal projects) is incorrect because municipalities issue municipal bonds, not bankers' acceptances. D (Real estate development) is incorrect because this typically involves construction loans or mortgage-backed securities, not bankers' acceptances.
Bankers' acceptances appear on the Series 65 as part of money market instrument coverage. Understanding their specific use in international trade helps you answer questions about which money market instrument applies in different scenarios. While less common than T-bills or commercial paper, the exam tests whether you know that BAs facilitate global trade by providing payment guarantees. This connects to discussions about credit enhancement (the bank's guarantee reduces risk) and international investment considerations.
SOFR (Secured Overnight Financing Rate) replaced LIBOR in 2023 as a benchmark interest rate. SOFR is based on:
C is correct. SOFR is calculated based on actual overnight Treasury repurchase agreement (repo) transactions. It's a secured rate reflecting the cost of borrowing cash overnight collateralized by Treasury securities. The New York Federal Reserve calculates SOFR daily based on real transaction data.
A (Unsecured interbank lending) is incorrect because this describes LIBOR, which SOFR replaced. SOFR is a secured rate backed by Treasury collateral. B (Fed policy targets) is incorrect because while the Fed calculates SOFR, it's based on market transactions, not Fed policy targets. The federal funds rate is the Fed's policy rate. D (Commercial paper yields) is incorrect because SOFR is specifically based on repo transactions, not commercial paper markets.
SOFR is a relatively recent development that appears on updated Series 65 exams. Understanding that it replaced LIBOR and is based on secured repo transactions helps you answer questions about benchmark rates and floating-rate securities. SOFR is backward-looking (based on actual past transactions) rather than forward-looking like LIBOR was. This affects how adjustable-rate loans and floating-rate notes are priced. The transition from LIBOR to SOFR is testable as part of understanding modern money market mechanics and interest rate benchmarks.
In a repurchase agreement (repo), the seller of the securities agrees to:
D is correct. In a repurchase agreement, the seller agrees to buy back the securities at a higher price on a specified future date. The difference between the sale price and repurchase price represents the interest cost. Repos are essentially short-term collateralized loans using Treasury securities as collateral.
B (Lower price) is incorrect because this would result in the borrower receiving money for free, which makes no economic sense. A (Periodic interest) is incorrect because repos work through the price differential between sale and repurchase, not through periodic interest payments. C (Never repurchase) is incorrect because the repurchase agreement is the defining feature of this transaction. Without the agreement to buy back, it would simply be a sale.
Repurchase agreements appear on the Series 65 as part of money market instrument coverage and Federal Reserve operations. Understanding the repo mechanics (sell now, buy back later at higher price) helps you answer questions about short-term funding markets. The Fed uses repos extensively in its open market operations to manage short-term interest rates and liquidity. Remember: the "higher price" represents the interest cost of this short-term borrowing. Questions may also test the reverse repo perspective (the buyer's view).
Treasury bills are quoted on a discount yield basis. How does this affect the quoted yield compared to the actual return an investor receives?
D is correct. The discount yield basis understates the true return an investor receives because it uses a 360-day year (not 365) and calculates yield based on face value (not the actual amount invested). The bond equivalent yield (BEY) adjusts for the 365-day year and shows a higher, more accurate return.
A (Overstates) is incorrect because this is backwards. The discount yield is actually lower than the true return. B (Equals) is incorrect because the calculation methods differ, producing different yields. C (Unrelated) is incorrect because discount yield does measure return, just using a different methodology that understates it.
T-bill yield quotations appear on the Series 65 as part of understanding money market instrument pricing. The exam may test whether you know that discount yield understates actual returns or ask you to compare discount yield to bond equivalent yield. This technical detail helps advisers interpret T-bill auction results and compare money market yields accurately. When comparing T-bills to other investments, use bond equivalent yield for apples-to-apples comparison. This concept also applies to commercial paper and bankers' acceptances, which are also quoted on a discount basis.
A client has $500,000 in a single negotiable CD at one bank. How much of this is covered by FDIC insurance?
A is correct. FDIC insurance covers $250,000 per depositor, per bank, per ownership category. Even though the client has $500,000 in the CD, only $250,000 is insured. The remaining $250,000 is at risk if the bank fails.
B ($100,000) is incorrect because it understates the current FDIC coverage limit. C ($500,000) is incorrect because FDIC coverage is capped at $250,000 per depositor, per bank. D (Not insured) is incorrect because negotiable CDs, despite being tradable, are still bank deposits eligible for FDIC insurance up to the $250,000 limit.
FDIC insurance limits are regularly tested on the Series 65, especially in questions about large deposits and negotiable CDs. Understanding that jumbo CDs and negotiable CDs only have partial FDIC coverage when they exceed $250,000 is crucial for advising clients about the actual safety of their deposits. This connects to suitability discussions about truly risk-free investments versus principal-protected investments. Advisers must ensure clients understand that amounts above FDIC limits carry bank credit risk. The per-bank, per-depositor rule means clients can obtain more coverage by spreading deposits across multiple banks or ownership categories.
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